Check Real CompTIA N10-009 Exam Question for Free (2026)
Get Ready to Boost your Prepare for your N10-009 Exam with 504 Questions
CompTIA N10-009 Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Topic | Details |
|---|---|
| Topic 1 |
|
| Topic 2 |
|
| Topic 3 |
|
| Topic 4 |
|
| Topic 5 |
|
NEW QUESTION # 202
A systems administrator is investigating why users cannot reach a Linux web server with a browser but can ping the server IP. The server is online, the web server process is running, and the link to the switch is up. Which of the following commands should the administrator run on the server first?
- A. tcpdump
- B. traceroute
- C. netstat
- D. arp
Answer: C
Explanation:
The netstat command provides information about network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, masquerade connections, and multicast memberships. Running netstat on the server can help the administrator verify that the web server process is listening on the expected port (e.g., port 80 for HTTP or port 443 for HTTPS) and that there are no issues with network connections. This is a crucial first step in diagnosing why the web server is not accessible via a browser.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 203
A network administrator for a small office is adding a passive IDS to its network switch for the purpose of inspecting network traffic. Which of the following should the administrator use?
- A. Syslog collection
- B. API integration
- C. Port mirroring
- D. SNMP trap
Answer: C
Explanation:
Port mirroring, also known as SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer), is used to send a copy of network packets seen on one switch port (or an entire VLAN) to another port where the IDS is connected. This allows the IDS to passively inspect network traffic without interfering with the actual traffic flow. Port mirroring is an essential feature for implementing IDS in a network for traffic analysis and security monitoring.Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 204
An organization moved itsDNS serversto new IP addresses. After this move, customers are no longer able to access the organization's website. Which of the followingDNS entriesshould be updated?
- A. MX
- B. AAAA
- C. NS
- D. CNAME
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
When an organization moves itsDNS serversto new IP addresses, theNS (Name Server) recordsmust be updated. TheNS recorddefines which DNS servers are authoritative for a domain. If these records still point to the old IP addresses, clients will continue to query the outdated servers, leading to connectivity issues.
Breakdown of Options:
* A. AAAA- This record maps a domain name to an IPv6 address. Since the issue is with DNS resolution, not IP versioning, this is incorrect.
* B. CNAME- ACNAME (Canonical Name) recordis used for domain aliasing, not for defining authoritative name servers.
* C. MX-Mail Exchange (MX) recordsdirect email traffic to the correct mail server, which does not impact general website accessibility.
* D. NS-Correct answer.NS records must be updatedto reflect the new authoritative DNS servers.
NEW QUESTION # 205
Which of the following can support a jumbo frame?
- A. Bridge
- B. Hub
- C. Switch
- D. Access point
Answer: C
Explanation:
Definition of Jumbo Frames:
Jumbo frames are Ethernet frames with more than 1500 bytes of payload, typically up to 9000 bytes. They are used to improve network performance by reducing the overhead caused by smaller frames.
Why Switches Support Jumbo Frames:
Switches are network devices designed to manage data packets and can be configured to support jumbo frames. This capability enhances throughput and efficiency, particularly in high- performance networks and data centers.
NEW QUESTION # 206
Which of the following is the part of a disaster recovery (DR) plan that identifies the critical systems that should be recovered first after an incident?
- A. RTO
- B. SLA
- C. SIEM
- D. MTBF
Answer: A
Explanation:
RTO stands forRecovery Time Objective, which defines the maximum acceptable amount of time that a system, application, or function can be down after a failure or disaster. It helps prioritizewhich systems need to be recovered firstbased on their importance to business operations.
* SLA (Service Level Agreement)refers to an agreement between a service provider and a customer regarding expected performance and availability, but it does not dictate recovery order.
* MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)is a measure of reliability and time between hardware or system failures.
* SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)is a centralized tool for logging and alerting but not relevant to DR recovery prioritization.
#Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 4.4 - Summarize business continuity and disaster recovery concepts.
NEW QUESTION # 207
An organization has a security requirement that all network connections can be traced back to a user. A network administrator needs to identify a solution to implement on the wireless network.
Which of the following is the best solution?
- A. Implementing enterprise authentication
- B. Configuring acaptive portal for users
- C. Enforcing wired equivalent protection
- D. Requiring theuse of PSKs
Answer: A
Explanation:
Enterprise authentication (such as WPA2-Enterprise) utilizes unique credentials for each user, typically integrating with an authentication server like RADIUS. This allows for tracking and logging user activity, ensuring that all connections can be traced back to individual users. PSKs (Pre-Shared Keys) are shared among users and do not provide individual accountability. Captive portals can identify users but are less secure than enterprise authentication, and Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is outdated and not recommended for security purposes.
NEW QUESTION # 208
Which of the following must be implemented to securely connect a company's headquarters with a branch location?
- A. Split-tunnel VPN
- B. Clientless VPN
- C. Site-to-site VPN
- D. Full-tunnel VPN
Answer: C
Explanation:
Site-to-Site VPN: A site-to-site VPN is used to securely connect two networks, such as a company's headquarters and a branch location, over the internet. This type of VPN creates a secure tunnel for data transmission, ensuring confidentiality and integrity.
Split-tunnel VPN (A): Allows some traffic to bypass the VPN tunnel, which may not secure all communications.
Clientless VPN (B): Used for individual users to access the network without VPN client software.
Full-tunnel VPN (C): Typically used for individual user traffic rather than connecting two networks.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Official Study Guide, Domain 1.3 (Secure Network Connections).
NEW QUESTION # 209
A network technician sets up a computer on the accounting department floor for a user from the marketing department. The user reports that they cannot access the marketing department's shared drives but can access the internet. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
- A. Misconfigured gateway settings
- B. Mismatched switchport duplex
- C. Incorrect VLAN assignment
- D. SVI is assigned to the wrong IP address
Answer: C
Explanation:
The user's inability to access the marketing department's shared drives, despite having internet access, suggests a network segmentation issue. The most likely cause is an incorrect VLAN assignment. The computer is physically located on the accounting department floor, and the switchport is likely configured for the accounting VLAN, not the marketing VLAN. VLANs segment network traffic, and if the computer is in the wrong VLAN, it cannot communicate with the marketing department's resources.
Why not Mismatched switchport duplex? Duplex mismatches cause performance issues (e.g., packet loss) but not specific access denials to shared drives.
Why not Misconfigured gateway settings? Incorrect gateway settings would prevent internet access, which the user has.
Why not SVI is assigned to the wrong IP address? A Switch Virtual Interface (SVI) with an incorrect IP address affects inter-VLAN routing, but this would likely impact multiple users, not just one.
Reference:CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Objective 2.2: Explain the purpose of network segmentation and VLAN configuration. The CompTIA Network+ Study Guide (e.g., Chapter 6: Switching) explains that VLANs isolate traffic, and incorrect VLAN assignments prevent access to resources on other VLANs.
NEW QUESTION # 210
To reduce costs and increase mobility, a Chief Technology Officer (CTO) wants to adopt cloud services for the organization and its affiliates. To reduce the impact for users, the CTO wants key services to run from the on-site data center and enterprise services to run in the cloud. Which of the following deployment models is the best choice for the organization?
- A. Private
- B. SaaS
- C. Hybrid
- D. Public
Answer: C
Explanation:
A hybrid cloud deployment model is the best choice for the CTO's requirements. It allows the organization to run key services from the on-site data center while leveraging the cloud for enterprise services. This approach provides flexibility, scalability, and cost savings, while also minimizing disruptions to users by keeping critical services local. The hybrid model integrates both private and public cloud environments, offering the benefits of both.
NEW QUESTION # 211
Which of the following helps a network administrator understand security risk from external malicious actors and offers insights on which threats to mitigate?
- A. Honeypot
- B. Compliance benchmarks
- C. SAML
- D. CIA triad
Answer: D
Explanation:
The CIA triad (Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability) is a foundational security model used in Network+ (N10-009) to evaluate risk and guide prioritization of mitigations. By categorizing assets and threats based on how they could impact confidentiality (data exposure), integrity (unauthorized alteration), or availability (service disruption), administrators can better understand which attacks from external actors matter most to the business and which controls to apply first. For example, a public-facing portal might prioritize availability protections (DDoS mitigation, redundancy), while sensitive customer records demand strong confidentiality controls (encryption, access control), and financial systems require integrity controls (logging, validation, change control). This model helps translate "threats" into business impact, which is central to deciding what to mitigate.
Compliance benchmarks support meeting regulatory/industry requirements, but they don't inherently provide a conceptual lens for analyzing external attacker impact across all systems. SAML is a federation
/authentication standard, not a risk model. A honeypot can provide insight into attacker behavior, but it doesn' t broadly structure risk prioritization the way CIA does. Therefore, CIA triad is the best answer.
NEW QUESTION # 212
Which of the following disaster recovery concepts is calculated by dividing the total hours of operation by the total number of units?
- A. RPO
- B. MTBF
- C. RTO
- D. MTTR
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Introduction to Disaster Recovery Concepts:
* Disaster recovery involves strategies and measures to ensure business continuity and data recovery in the event of a disaster.
* Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF):
* MTBF is a reliability metric used to predict the time between failures of a system during operation. It is calculated by dividing the total operational time by the number of failures.
* Formula: MTBF=Total Operational TimeNumber of Failures\text{MTBF} = \frac{\text{Total Operational Time}}{\text{Number of Failures}} MTBF=Number of FailuresTotal Operational Time
* This metric helps in understanding the reliability and expected lifespan of systems and components.
* Example Calculation:
* If a server operates for 1000 hours and experiences 2 failures, the MTBF is:
MTBF=1000 hours2=500 hours\text{MTBF} = \frac{1000 \text{ hours}}{2} = 500 \text{ hours} MTBF=21000 hours=500 hours
* Explanation of the Options:
* A. MTTR (Mean Time to Repair): The average time required to repair a system after a failure.
* B. MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures): The correct answer, representing the average time between failures.
* C. RPO (Recovery Point Objective): The maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time.
* D. RTO (Recovery Time Objective): The target time set for the recovery of IT and business activities after a disaster.
* Conclusion:
* MTBF is a crucial metric in disaster recovery and system reliability, helping organizations plan maintenance and predict system performance.
NEW QUESTION # 213
Newly crimped 26ft (8m) STP Cat 6 patch cables were recently installed in one room to replace cables that were damaged by a vacuum cleaner. Now, users in that room are unable to connect to the network. A network technician tests the existing cables first. The 177ft (54m) cable that runs from the core switch to the access switch on the floor is working, as is the 115ft (35m) cable run from the access switch to the wall jack in the office. Which of the following is the most likely reason the users cannot connect to the network?
- A. An incorrect pinout on the patch cable is being used.
- B. Mixed UTP and STP cables are being used.
- C. The patch cables are not plenum rated.
- D. The cable distance is exceeded.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An incorrect pinout on the patch cable could prevent network connectivity due to mismatched wiring. Even if the cables are the correct length and type, a pinout issue can cause continuity problems and prevent data transmission. Proper crimping with the correct pinout is essential for network cables to function. (Reference:
CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, Chapter on Network Media and Topologies)
NEW QUESTION # 214
Which of the following fiber connector types is the most likely to be used on a network interface card?
- A. ST
- B. SC
- C. MPO
- D. LC
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Definition of Fiber Connector Types:
* LC (Lucent Connector): A small form-factor fiber optic connector with a push-pull latching mechanism, commonly used for high-density applications.
* SC (Subscriber Connector or Standard Connector): A larger form-factor connector with a push- pull latching mechanism, often used in datacom and telecom applications.
* ST (Straight Tip): A bayonet-style connector, typically used in multimode fiber optic networks.
* MPO (Multi-fiber Push On): A connector designed to support multiple fibers (typically 12 or 24 fibers), used in high-density cabling environments.
* Common Usage:
* LC Connectors: Due to their small size, LC connectors are widely used in network interface cards (NICs) and high-density environments such as data centers. They allow for more connections in a smaller space compared to SC and ST connectors.
* SC and ST Connectors: These are larger and more commonly used in patch panels and older fiber installations but are less suitable for high-density applications.
* MPO Connectors: Primarily used for trunk cables in data centers and high-density applications but not typically on individual network interface cards.
* Selection Criteria:
* The small form-factor and high-density capabilities of LC connectors make them the preferred choice for network interface cards, where space and connection density are critical considerations.
NEW QUESTION # 215
Which of the following, in addition to a password, can be asked of a user for MFA?
- A. Hard token
- B. PIN
- C. Mother's maiden name
- D. Favorite color
Answer: A
Explanation:
MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) requires factors from different categories:
Something you know # Password, PIN
Something you have # Smart card, hardware (hard) token
Something you are # Biometric
The correct second factor is a hard token.
A). PIN = something you know (same factor as password).
B). Favorite color = knowledge-based, same factor as password.
D). Mother's maiden name = weak knowledge-based, same factor as password.
References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
Domain: Network Security - Authentication methods, MFA categories.
NEW QUESTION # 216
After a recent power outage, users are reporting performance issues accessing the application servers.
Wireless users are also reporting intermittent Internet issues.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each tab at the top of the screen. Select a widget to view information, then use the drop-down menus to answer the associated questions. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the answer and solution below.
Explanation:
Network Health:
WAN 2 appears to have a lower average latency and loss percentage, which would make it the preferred WAN station for VoIP traffic. VoIP traffic requires low latency and packet loss to ensure good voice quality and reliability. WAN 1 seems to have higher RAM and processor usage, which could also affect the performance of VoIP traffic.
Here's the summary of the key metrics for WAN 1 and WAN 2 from the image provided:
* WAN 1:
* Uplink Speed: 10G
* Total Usage: 26.969GB Up / 1.748GB Down
* Average Throughput: 353MBps Up / 23.42MBps Down
* Loss: 2.51%
* Average Latency: 24ms
* Jitter: 9.5ms
* WAN 2:
* Uplink Speed: 1G
* Total Usage: 930GB Up / 138GB Down
* Average Throughput: 12.21MBps Up / 1.82MBps Down
* Loss: 0.01%
* Average Latency: 11ms
* Jitter: 3.9ms
For VoIP traffic, low latency and jitter are particularly important to ensure voice quality. While WAN 1 has higher bandwidth and throughput, it also has higher latency and jitter compared to WAN 2. However, WAN 2 has much lower loss, lower latency, and lower jitter, which are more favorable for VoIP traffic that is sensitive to delays and variation in packet arrival times.
Given this information, WAN 2 would generally be preferred for VoIP traffic due to its lower latency, lower jitter, and significantly lower loss percentage, despite its lower bandwidth compared to WAN 1. The high bandwidth of WAN 1 may be more suitable for other types of traffic that are less sensitive to latency and jitter, such as bulk data transfers.
Device Monitoring:
the device that is experiencing connectivity issues is the APP Server or Router 1, which has a status of Down.
This means that the server is not responding to network requests or sending any data. You may want to check the physical connection, power supply, and configuration of the APP Server to troubleshoot the problem.
NEW QUESTION # 217
A network technician was recently onboarded to a company. A manager has tasked the technician with documenting the network and has provided the technician With partial information from previous documentation.
Instructions:
Click on each switch to perform a network discovery by entering commands into the terminal. Fill in the missing information using drop-down menus provided.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation for detailed information on this simulation.
Explanation:
(Note: Ips will be change on each simulation task, so we have given example answer for the understanding) To perform a network discovery by entering commands into the terminal, you can use the following steps:
Click on each switch to open its terminal window.
Enter the command show ip interface brief to display the IP addresses and statuses of the switch interfaces.
Enter the command show vlan brief to display the VLAN configurations and assignments of the switch interfaces.
Enter the command show cdp neighbors to display the information about the neighboring devices that are connected to the switch.
Fill in the missing information in the diagram using the drop-down menus provided.
Here is an example of how to fill in the missing information for Core Switch 1:
The IP address of Core Switch 1 is 192.168.1.1.
The VLAN configuration of Core Switch 1 is VLAN 1: 192.168.1.0/24, VLAN 2: 192.168.2.0/24, VLAN 3:
192.168.3.0/24.
The neighboring devices of Core Switch 1 are Access Switch 1 and Access Switch 2.
The interfaces that connect Core Switch 1 to Access Switch 1 are GigabitEthernet0/1 and GigabitEthernet0/2.
The interfaces that connect Core Switch 1 to Access Switch 2 are GigabitEthernet0/3 and GigabitEthernet0/4.
You can use the same steps to fill in the missing information for Access Switch 1 and Access Switch 2.
NEW QUESTION # 218
Network administrators are using the Telnet protocol to administer network devices that are on the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet. Which of the following tools should the administrator use to best identify the devices?
- A. runap
- B. dig
- C. telnet
- D. tracert
Answer: C
Explanation:
Telnet: Telnet is a protocol used to establish remote connections to devices for administration. It directly communicates with devices on the network and is the best tool for identifying and accessing devices that support it on the subnet.
NEW QUESTION # 219
An employee has a new laptop and reports slow performance when using the wireless network. Switch firmware was updated the previous night. A network administrator logs in to the switch and sees the following statistics on the switch interface for that employee:
98469 packets input, 1681937 bytes, 0 no buffer
Received 1548 broadcasts (25285 multicasts)
65335 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles
11546 input errors, 5 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored
0 input packets with dribble condition detected
22781 packets output, 858040 bytes, 0 underruns
0 output errors, 89920 collisions, 0 interface resets
0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred
0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier
0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out
Which of the following is most likely the cause of the issue?
- A. Multicast is not configured correctly on the switch.
- B. The switchport bandwidth needs to be increased.
- C. The patch cord from the wall jack is faulty.
- D. The NIC is set to half duplex.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A large number of collisions and input errors typically indicates a duplex mismatch, such as when one device is set to full duplex and the other to half duplex. This leads to communication issues and poor performance.
The document explains:
"Collisions and input errors are clear signs of duplex mismatches... typically caused when one device operates in half duplex while the other is in full duplex, causing performance and connectivity issues."
NEW QUESTION # 220
......
Use Free N10-009 Exam Questions that Stimulates Actual EXAM : https://certtree.2pass4sure.com/CompTIA-Network/N10-009-actual-exam-braindumps.html